Many people reject the doctrine of Mary’s perpetual virginity and instead assert that Mary and Joseph had normal marital relations after the birth of Jesus. The usual arguments are:
1. Luke’s Emphasis on Mary as “a virgin” and “the virgin” (Luke 1:26–27) — while She is already betrothed — and God’s decree in Isaiah 7:14
Luke introduces Mary with two emphatic descriptors:
Thus Luke presents Mary as:
“Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son…”
Luke presents Mary as the fulfillment of this prophecy — a prophecy that requires conception while She remains a virgin.
So the question stands:
If Mary expected normal marital relations with Joseph, why does Luke emphasize Her virginity twice — including calling Her “the virgin” — at the very moment he identifies Her as already betrothed (legally married), and why does he present Her as the fulfillment of God’s decree that the virgin would conceive?
2. Mary’s Question to Gabriel (Luke 1:34)
When Gabriel announces that Mary will conceive a son, Mary replies:
“How will this occur, since I know not man (οὐ γινώσκω ἄνδρα)?”
The text shows Mary:
If Mary expected normal marital relations with Joseph, why does She ask how conception will occur — and explain Her confusion by saying She "knows not man"?
3. Gabriel’s Answer (Luke 1:35–37)
Gabriel answers Mary’s question by describing a conception brought about by divine action:
“The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you.”
“Your kinswoman Elizabeth has conceived in her old age… for nothing will be impossible with God.”
The text shows Gabriel responding to Mary’s question with:
If Mary expected to conceive naturally through Joseph, why does Gabriel respond with a description of miraculous, non‑sexual conception and reinforce it by citing Elizabeth — a woman whose conception was naturally impossible? What relevance would Elizabeth’s impossibility have if Mary’s conception were expected to be natural?
These questions arise directly from Luke’s narrative logic. If the text supports the expectation of normal marital relations, it should be possible to explain why Mary and Gabriel speak as though conception is impossible without divine intervention. Impossibilities in Scripture are tied to physical obstructions — barrenness, age, infertility, or lack of a husband. Mary has none of these. Under Her circumstances, natural conception through Joseph is entirely possible. Yet She speaks as though conception is impossible under Her expected future circumstances. I ask that responses address these questions directly, without shifting to unrelated topics or assumptions.
- Marriage is oriented toward procreation (Genesis 2).
- “To know one’s wife” means sexual relations.
- “Joseph knew Her not until She had given birth to a Son” (Matthew 1:25), therefore they must have had intercourse afterward.
- Paul teaches that spouses owe each other conjugal rights except for limited periods (1 Corinthians 7).
1. Luke’s Emphasis on Mary as “a virgin” and “the virgin” (Luke 1:26–27) — while She is already betrothed — and God’s decree in Isaiah 7:14
Luke introduces Mary with two emphatic descriptors:
- “a virgin” (παρθένον)
- “the virgin” (τὴν παρθένον)
Thus Luke presents Mary as:
- a legally married woman,
- Who is nevertheless still a virgin,
- Whose virginity is highlighted twice at the moment the conception is announced.
“Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son…”
Luke presents Mary as the fulfillment of this prophecy — a prophecy that requires conception while She remains a virgin.
So the question stands:
If Mary expected normal marital relations with Joseph, why does Luke emphasize Her virginity twice — including calling Her “the virgin” — at the very moment he identifies Her as already betrothed (legally married), and why does he present Her as the fulfillment of God’s decree that the virgin would conceive?
2. Mary’s Question to Gabriel (Luke 1:34)
When Gabriel announces that Mary will conceive a son, Mary replies:
“How will this occur, since I know not man (οὐ γινώσκω ἄνδρα)?”
The text shows Mary:
- betrothed (legally married under Jewish law; cf. Matthew 1:19–20) to Joseph (Luke 1:27),
- responding to the announcement of conception by asking how conception will occur (Luke 1:34)
- explaining Her confusion by stating that She “knows not man” (Luke 1:34)
If Mary expected normal marital relations with Joseph, why does She ask how conception will occur — and explain Her confusion by saying She "knows not man"?
3. Gabriel’s Answer (Luke 1:35–37)
Gabriel answers Mary’s question by describing a conception brought about by divine action:
“The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you.”
“Your kinswoman Elizabeth has conceived in her old age… for nothing will be impossible with God.”
The text shows Gabriel responding to Mary’s question with:
- a description of miraculous conception,
- an example of another woman whose conception was naturally impossible,
- and a statement that God overcomes what is impossible.
If Mary expected to conceive naturally through Joseph, why does Gabriel respond with a description of miraculous, non‑sexual conception and reinforce it by citing Elizabeth — a woman whose conception was naturally impossible? What relevance would Elizabeth’s impossibility have if Mary’s conception were expected to be natural?
These questions arise directly from Luke’s narrative logic. If the text supports the expectation of normal marital relations, it should be possible to explain why Mary and Gabriel speak as though conception is impossible without divine intervention. Impossibilities in Scripture are tied to physical obstructions — barrenness, age, infertility, or lack of a husband. Mary has none of these. Under Her circumstances, natural conception through Joseph is entirely possible. Yet She speaks as though conception is impossible under Her expected future circumstances. I ask that responses address these questions directly, without shifting to unrelated topics or assumptions.
Exegesis precedes theology.